Why did John use "spirit" instead of "prophet" in I John 1:3? (Part 1 of 2)

In this video, I analyzed the points explained by bro Eli in the video titled "Why did John use "spirit" instead of "prophet" in I John 1:3? (Part 1 of 2)". You can watch the original video here: https://hive.blog/hive-182074/@fatimajunio/wshvundu

In this first part, bro Eli explains that every prophet is being recognized by the spirit in him. The spirit of a prophet is a subject to the prophet.

1 Corinthians 14:32,37 KJV
[32] And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.
[37] If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

He also says we are not to believe every spirits but to test them.

1 John 4:2-3 KJV
[2] Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God: [3] And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

2 John 1:7 KJV
For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

Watch my response to in the video

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